AMT RPT Practice Test: 30 Free Phlebotomy Questions
30 AMT RPT-style questions with answers and explanations, weighted to the American Medical Technologists's Registered Phlebotomy Technician exam. The real exam has 200 scored questions (amt exams may also include unscored pretest items) in 2.5 hours, and you need a scaled score of 70 to pass. No account needed: tap an answer to see why, and get your score and weakest area at the end.
Written by Benjamin Tibbs, a phlebotomy studentChecked against CLSI, OSHA, CDC and The Joint CommissionUpdated October 2026
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Answer: B. Release the tourniquet, remove the needle, and apply firm pressure
A rapidly growing hematoma means blood is leaking into the tissue, so the draw must stop. Release the tourniquet, withdraw the needle and activate the safety device, and hold firm direct pressure until bleeding stops. Collect the remaining tube from another site; a wrapped cold pack may be applied afterward, but never ice directly on the skin.
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Answer: D. That the physician has given permission for a foot draw
Most facilities require physician permission before drawing from the legs or feet, and standard texts advise against it in diabetic patients without that permission. Poor circulation and neuropathy raise the risk of infection, slow healing, and unnoticed injury, and lower-extremity punctures carry a higher risk of clots. The physician weighs these risks against the need for the specimen.
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Answer: A. A sclerosed or thrombosed vein that should not be used
A hard, cord-like vein that does not rebound is sclerosed (scarred, often from repeated punctures or IV use) or thrombosed (clotted). Blood flow through it is poor or absent, so a puncture is likely to fail and may be painful. Healthy veins feel soft and bouncy and refill after gentle pressure.
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Answer: C. Remove the needle, call for help, and do not restrain the patient
The jerking movements can drive the needle through the vein or cause a needlestick, so remove the needle at once and activate the safety device. Call for help, protect the patient from falls and injury, and do not restrain the limbs, which can cause injury. Note the time the seizure started, and do not resume the draw until the patient has been evaluated.
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Answer: B. Calcium and potassium in the green-top tube, because of EDTA carryover
Lavender is drawn after green so that EDTA cannot carry over on the needle into other tubes. Potassium EDTA binds calcium and contains potassium, so carryover can falsely lower calcium and falsely raise potassium in the heparin tube. The EDTA tube itself, drawn first, is not affected.
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Answer: A. Red meat can cause a false positive; vitamin C can cause a false negative
Guaiac tests detect the peroxidase activity of hemoglobin. Red meat contains animal hemoglobin and can cause a false positive, while vitamin C blocks the reaction and can cause a false negative. Patients are usually told to avoid red meat, and vitamin C above 250 mg a day, for 3 days before testing; immunochemical tests (FIT) detect only human hemoglobin and do not have these diet limits.
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Answer: D. The cloudiness can interfere with photometric tests for several analytes
Lipemia, cloudy or milky serum caused by excess fats in the blood, often follows a recent meal. The cloudiness scatters light in photometric methods and can falsely raise or lower several results. The lab decides whether to report, treat (for example, by high-speed centrifugation), or reject the specimen based on how severe it is.
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Answer: B. STAT troponin → cortisol → fasting glucose → routine CBC
A STAT order comes first because its result is needed for urgent care, here a possible heart attack. The 8:00 cortisol is next because its timing is part of the test, and the fasting glucose must be drawn before the 8:15 breakfast tray arrives. The routine CBC has no time limit, so it goes last.
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Answer: D. Peak at 10:30 AM, trough at 5:30 PM
The peak is drawn 30 minutes after the infusion ends (10:00 + 30 minutes = 10:30 AM). The trough is drawn 30 minutes before the next dose (6:00 PM − 30 minutes = 5:30 PM), when the drug level is lowest. A draw at the wrong time gives a misleading level for dose adjustment.
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Answer: C. Use the hospital's phone interpreter service
Facilities that receive federal funds must provide qualified language assistance to patients with limited English proficiency (Title VI of the Civil Rights Act; Section 1557 of the Affordable Care Act). A trained medical interpreter, by phone or video, conveys identification questions, consent, and instructions accurately, while family members may leave out or change information. Waiting for an in-person interpreter delays care when a qualified remote one is available.
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Answer: D. Do not use the specimen; report the error and recollect correctly labeled specimens from the patients involved
A mislabeled specimen has lost its proof of identity and cannot be fixed by relabeling, crossing out, or attaching a note. It must not be used; the error is reported through the facility's incident system, and new specimens are collected with labels applied at the bedside. Johnson's ordered tests still need to be drawn, and any of Jensen's specimens from the same round must be checked and recollected if affected.
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Answer: B. A surgical mask
Droplet precautions apply to infections spread by large respiratory droplets over short distances, such as influenza, pertussis, and meningococcal disease. CDC guidelines add a surgical (procedure) mask, put on before entering the room, to standard precautions. N95 respirators are for airborne precautions, such as tuberculosis, measles, and chickenpox.
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Answer: C. Soap and water, because alcohol does not kill C. difficile spores
Alcohol does not kill C. difficile spores, and washing with soap and water removes them from the hands more effectively. During outbreaks, IDSA/SHEA guidance prefers soap and water after caring for patients with C. difficile, and the CDC encourages it; in routine settings either method is acceptable unless hands are visibly soiled. Gloves and a gown under contact precautions are the main protection, and wearing gloves never replaces hand hygiene.
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Answer: A. Respect the refusal, document it, and notify the nurse or provider
Competent adults have the right to refuse any procedure, even one a physician ordered. Drawing blood against a patient's wishes can be treated as assault and battery. The phlebotomist documents the refusal according to facility policy and notifies the nurse or ordering provider; threats and force are never acceptable.
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Answer: C. Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta
Oxygen-poor blood enters the right atrium from the venae cavae, passes through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, and is pumped through the pulmonary artery to the lungs. Oxygen-rich blood returns through the pulmonary veins to the left atrium, passes through the mitral valve into the left ventricle, and is pumped out through the aorta to the body.
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Answer: A. Have her state her name and birth date, then check the requisition
The patient states her own identifiers in answer to open-ended questions, and they are compared with the requisition (The Joint Commission requires at least two identifiers). A yes-or-no question invites a wrong 'yes' from a patient who is anxious, hard of hearing or confused.
Why the other choices are wrong
- B. A patient may answer 'yes' to a name that is not hers because she misheard or is nervous. Have her state it.
- C. Reading the identifiers aloud lets the patient agree without really checking. She should state them herself.
- D. An insurance card and an appointment list do not confirm who is in the chair. The patient states her identifiers and they are matched to the requisition.
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Answer: B. Remove the needle, hold firm pressure 5 minutes or more, and report it
Bright red blood that pulses into the tube signals an accidental arterial puncture. Remove the needle and apply firm pressure for at least 5 minutes (longer if the patient takes anticoagulants) to prevent a hematoma, check the site, and tell the nurse or supervisor. If the specimen is kept, the laboratory must be told it may be arterial.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. Arterial blood is under pressure. Brief pressure after an arterial puncture leads to a hematoma.
- C. Loosening the tourniquet does not stop arterial flow, and leaving the needle in an artery prolongs the injury.
- D. Arterial and venous values differ for some tests, such as blood gases, so the specimen must not be passed off as venous.
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Answer: C. The middle or ring finger
CLSI GP42-Ed7 recommends the palm side of the fingertip of the middle or ring finger, slightly off center and across the fingerprint lines. The thumb has a pulse and thick skin, the index finger is usually more callused and sensitive, and the little finger has so little tissue that the bone is close to the surface.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. The thumb has a pulse, with an artery close by, and thick, callused skin.
- B. The index finger is usually more callused and more sensitive to pain.
- D. The little finger has so little tissue that the bone lies close to the skin.
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Answer: D. Keep up the pressure and alert the nurse if it does not stop
The phlebotomist stays with the patient and keeps pressure on the site until bleeding stops. Bleeding that continues beyond about 5 minutes is reported to the nurse or provider, since it can signal anticoagulant therapy or a clotting problem. A patient is never left with a site that is still bleeding.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. A bandage over a site that is still bleeding hides the problem and can lead to a hematoma.
- B. The phlebotomist is responsible for the site until bleeding stops. Leaving the patient alone with it is unsafe.
- C. Leaving a patient whose site is still bleeding is the error. The nurse or provider must be told.
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Answer: A. Shaking can hemolyze it; tubes are inverted gently
Shaking ruptures red cells (hemolysis), which falsely raises potassium and other analytes and can make the specimen unacceptable. Additive tubes are mixed by gentle, complete inversions right after filling, the number set by the manufacturer: for BD tubes, 3 to 4 for citrate, 5 for serum tubes, and 8 to 10 for heparin, EDTA and fluoride.
Why the other choices are wrong
- B. No tube is shaken. EDTA tubes are inverted gently 8 to 10 times.
- C. Plain tubes with no additive need no mixing at all. Additive tubes are inverted gently, never shaken.
- D. Hemolysis happens inside the tube whether or not the stopper stays on.
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Answer: B. Leakproof tube, sealed secondary with absorbent, rigid outer box
Category B infectious substances (UN3373) are shipped in triple packaging under 49 CFR 173.199 and IATA Packing Instruction 650: a leakproof primary receptacle, a leakproof secondary packaging with enough absorbent to soak up the entire contents, and a rigid outer packaging marked UN3373 with the proper shipping name.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. A padded envelope is not a rigid outer packaging, and one bag is not the required three layers.
- C. A cooler can keep the temperature, but the specimen still needs a leakproof secondary with absorbent and the UN3373 marking.
- D. The box must hold the primary and secondary layers with absorbent, and it is marked UN3373, not only with a biohazard symbol.
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Answer: C. Empty the bladder at 7 AM and discard it, then save all urine until 7 AM tomorrow
A timed 24-hour collection starts with an empty bladder: the 7 AM urine is discarded and the start time recorded, then all urine for the next 24 hours is saved, ending with a final void at 7 AM the next day, which is included. The container is refrigerated or kept as the laboratory instructs.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. The 7 AM urine was made before the collection period began. Including it adds urine from outside the 24 hours.
- B. A 24-hour test needs every void in the period, not just the morning ones.
- D. Timing and completeness are the test. Missed or extra urine makes the result wrong.
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Answer: D. Tell the nurse and document why the timed draw was missed
A timed draw that cannot be done on time is a problem to refer, not to solve alone. The nurse is told, the delay is documented, and facility policy decides whether to collect late, with the actual time recorded, or to reschedule. A label always shows the actual collection time; cortisol varies through the day, so the time matters.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. Labeling with a time the specimen was not drawn falsifies the record, and cortisol results depend on the time of day.
- B. Cancelling an order is not the phlebotomist's decision. The nurse or provider decides.
- C. Waiting indefinitely delays every other draw on the list. Refer the problem and move on.
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Answer: A. A quick pinch, and I'll warn you right before
Patients are owed honest, calm information: a brief sting is expected, and a warning just before the needle goes in reduces startled movement. Promising no pain costs trust when it does hurt, exaggerating it raises anxiety, and brushing the question off is dismissive.
Why the other choices are wrong
- B. Most patients feel a brief sting. Promising no pain costs the patient's trust as soon as the needle goes in.
- C. Exaggerating the pain makes a nervous patient more anxious and more likely to move or faint.
- D. Brushing off the question is dismissive and does nothing to calm the patient.
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Answer: B. Get the order completed by the provider's office first
Under CLIA (42 CFR 493.1241), a laboratory tests only on the request of an authorized person, and the requisition must identify that person so results and critical values can be reported. A missing provider is resolved with the ordering office before the draw; the phlebotomist does not guess or fill it in.
Review: Patient Identification
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. Without an authorized orderer the laboratory may not test the specimen, and critical results would have no one to go to.
- C. Guessing the orderer creates a false record, and results could go to a provider who never ordered them.
- D. The patient's recollection is not an authorized order. The ordering office must confirm it.
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Answer: C. Sweat
CDC's Standard Precautions rest on the principle that blood, all body fluids, secretions and excretions except sweat, nonintact skin and mucous membranes may carry transmissible infectious agents. They apply to every patient, whatever the diagnosis.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. Blood is the central concern of both Standard Precautions and OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard.
- B. Wound drainage is a body fluid and is treated as potentially infectious.
- D. Saliva is a secretion, and Standard Precautions cover all secretions.
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Answer: D. A serious health hazard
In the NFPA 704 diamond, blue is health, red is flammability, yellow is instability (reactivity) and white is for special hazards. Ratings run from 0 (minimal) to 4 (severe), so a 3 in blue means a serious health hazard.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. Fire (flammability) is the red section.
- B. Instability or reactivity is the yellow section.
- C. Special hazards, such as water reactivity or oxidizers, go in the white section and are shown as symbols, not numbers.
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Answer: A. When first assigned, then at least yearly
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030(g)(2) requires training when an employee is first assigned to tasks with occupational exposure and at least annually after that, at no cost to the employee and during working hours. Training records are kept for 3 years.
Why the other choices are wrong
- B. One-time training is not enough. It must be repeated at least every year.
- C. Certification renewal is set by the certifying body, not OSHA. OSHA requires training at least annually.
- D. Training must come before the exposure risk begins, not after an exposure.
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Answer: B. Respondeat superior
Respondeat superior ('let the master answer') makes an employer legally responsible for the negligent acts of employees done within the scope of their job. It does not remove the employee's own duty to meet the standard of care.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A. Res ipsa loquitur ('the thing speaks for itself') lets negligence be inferred from the injury itself. It does not assign liability to an employer.
- C. Informed consent concerns the patient's agreement to a procedure, not the employer's liability.
- D. The statute of limitations sets how long a patient has to file a lawsuit.
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Answer: A. Get a parent's or guardian's consent first
As a rule, a minor cannot give legal consent for routine medical procedures: a parent or legal guardian consents, unless the minor is emancipated or a state law makes an exception (some states let minors consent to specific services, such as testing for sexually transmitted infections). A routine cholesterol screening falls under the general rule, so follow facility policy and obtain a parent's or guardian's consent.
Why the other choices are wrong
- B. Implied consent from a minor is not valid consent for a routine procedure.
- C. A non-emancipated minor's signature is not legal consent for a routine procedure.
- D. A provider's order authorizes the test; it does not replace the consent of the patient or, for a minor, the guardian.
More free practice tests
Every set has different questions, each with an explanation and your score by domain. No account needed.
By certification exam
General phlebotomy practice tests
Topic quizzes
The three phlebotomy certification exams
Question counts, time limits and passing scores from each certifying body's own documents, checked October 6, 2026.
| Exam | Questions | Time | Passing score | Practice |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| NHA CPTNational Healthcareer Association | 120 questions: 100 scored and 20 unscored pretest items | 2 hours | 390 (scaled score from 200 to 500) | NHA CPT practice exam |
| ASCP PBTAmerican Society for Clinical Pathology Board of Certification | 80 multiple-choice questions | 2 hours | 400 (scaled score) | ASCP PBT practice exam |
| AMT RPTAmerican Medical Technologists | 200 scored questions (AMT exams may also include unscored pretest items) | 2.5 hours | 70 (scaled score from 0 to 100) | This page |
More detail: how each exam is scored · retake rules · NHA vs ASCP vs AMT · all exam facts with sources · general phlebotomy practice test